My theory is that modern english speakers don't want to put cannot before the subject because it contains not and sounds like can not. Consider the following two sentences Why can i not open the door And why can not i open the door What's the subtle difference between them? Tell me please which one of the following sentences is correct
Why can't i use this app, but i can use the other one Why can i not use this app, but i can use the other one I suspect that both sentence could be correct, if so, then which one is more formal? Is perfectly correct grammar as far as i can tell But what happens if the contraction is removed, why cannot i. This sounds bizarre, but would this be technically correct g.
I am a bit confused, since both have inversion, negation and a why in the beginning. My guess is it's extremely unlikely anyone could say exactly why the specific word can happens to lack the specific forms infinitive, future tense, participle, imperative, and gerund Not all defective verbs lack the same forms, anyway, but i suppose at least sometimes the etymological background has something in common with other irregular verbs. Why don't you go to dad [to complain, suggestion] why won't you go to dad Implies the person didn't want to go to dad before and the other person thinks he should.
The which in which is why simply refers to the previous statement Which is why you can start the next clause this way It sounds like a new sentence and may contain a pause, and there are no spaces or punctuation in language, i.e, speech. Richard was also spelled rickard, which obviously shortens to rick (a nickname we still use today) From there, rhyming forms were created, getting us dick It also created hick, which is a nickname that isn't in use today.
