Is it possible to solve this supposing that inner product spaces haven't been covered in the class yet? I am sorry i really had no clue which title to choose I thought about that matrix multiplication and since it does not change the result it is idempotent Please suggest a better one. So before i answer this we have to be clear with what objects we are working with here Also, this is my first answer and i cant figure out how to actually insert any kind of equations, besides what i can type with my keyboard
We have ker (a)= {x∈v:a⋅x=0} this means if a vector x when applied to our system of equations (matrix) are takin to the zero vector Thank you arturo (and everyone else) I managed to work out this solution after completing the assigned readings actually, it makes sense and was pretty obvious Could you please comment on also, while i know that ker (a)=ker (rref (a)) for any matrix a, i am not sure if i can say that ker (rref (a) * rref (b))=ker (ab) Is this statement true? just out of my curiosity? It does address complex matrices in the comments as well
I think that the correct path is to show that imb ⊆ kera which is when ab=0 and kera⊆imb at the same time implies kera=imb But i don't know when that is true. I need help with showing that $\ker\left (a\right)^ {\perp}\subseteq im\left (a^ {t}\right)$, i couldn't figure it out. Consider the following true/ false qustion There exists a $2 \times 2$ matrix $a$ such that $\operatorname {im} (a) = \ker (a)$ I know that this is true, but i am.
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